Physics MCQs,,Free Physics MCQs: Motion, Energy, Gravitation and ALL | MilanPhysics
Class 11 Chapters
Class 12 Chapters
Quiz: Units and Measurements
1. Which of the following is a fundamental SI unit?
2. Which of the following is a derived unit?
3. The SI unit of mass is:
4. How many significant figures are in 0.007050?
5. Which system of units uses meter, kilogram, second?
6. The SI unit of electric current is:
7. Which of the following is NOT a base quantity?
8. The SI unit of temperature is:
9. Which quantity has dimensions [M L T^-2]?
10. Dimensional formula of work/energy is:
11. Significant figures are used to:
12. The uncertainty in a measured quantity is:
13. 0.00450 has how many significant figures?
14. The fractional uncertainty is defined as:
15. If L = 2.0 ± 0.1 m, the percentage uncertainty is:
16. When adding two quantities, uncertainties:
17. The rule of significant figures in multiplication/division:
18. The least count of a measuring instrument helps determine:
19. Absolute uncertainty is:
20. Percentage uncertainty =
21. 1 Newton is equal to:
22. 1 Joule is equal to:
23. 1 Pascal is equal to:
24. The SI unit of luminous intensity is:
25. The SI unit of amount of substance is:
26. SI base unit for time is:
27. 1 Watt is equal to:
28. 1 Coulomb is equal to:
29. SI derived unit of capacitance is:
30. Dimensional formula of work/energy is:
31. The dimension of force is:
32. Dimensional formula of pressure is:
33. Kinetic energy has dimensions:
34. Using dimensional analysis, we can check:
35. The dimension of angular velocity is:
36. Dimensional formula of torque is:
37. Which of these can be found using dimensional analysis?
38. The dimension of frequency is:
39. The dimension of impulse is:
40. The dimension of gravitational constant G is:
41. Dimension of work function is:
42. Dimension of surface tension is:
43. Dimension of strain is:
44. Dimension of bulk modulus is:
45. Dimension of viscosity is:
46. Dimension of electric field is:
47. Dimension of capacitance is:
48. Dimension of magnetic flux is:
49. Dimension of electric potential is:
50. Dimension of permittivity of free space is:
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Chapter 2: Motion in a Straight Line
1. A particle moves 10 m in 2 s. Its average speed is?
2. Displacement is a _______ quantity.
3. Speed of a body is 20 m/s. Distance covered in 10 s?
4. Velocity is a _______ quantity.
5. A body moves with uniform velocity. Its acceleration is?
6. A car starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s². Distance covered in 5 s?
7. Equation of motion: v = u + at. Here 'v' stands for?
8. Uniform acceleration means?
9. Average velocity formula is?
10. A body covers equal distances in equal intervals. Its acceleration?
11. A body starts from rest and moves with acceleration 4 m/s². Distance in 3 s?
12. If velocity is constant, acceleration is?
13. A car moves 20 m in 4 s. Its speed?
14. Distance-time graph for uniform velocity is?
15. The slope of a velocity-time graph gives?
16. A body accelerates from 10 m/s to 30 m/s in 5 s. Acceleration?
17. A particle moves along a straight line with velocity v = u + at. Here 'u' is?
18. A particle moves 30 m in 3 s, 60 m in next 3 s. Average speed?
19. Displacement-time graph slope gives?
20. When acceleration is negative, body is?
21. If a = 0, velocity is?
22. Distance covered in nth second formula?
23. A particle moves with uniform acceleration. Velocity-time graph is?
24. Unit of acceleration?
25. Velocity is zero. Acceleration is?
26. A body moves with uniform velocity. Its speed-time graph is?
27. Acceleration formula?
28. Distance-time graph for uniform velocity?
29. Average speed formula?
30. Equation of motion: v² = u² + 2as. 's' stands for?
31. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration. Velocity after t seconds?
32. If a = 0, displacement-time graph is?
33. A car accelerates uniformly from 10 m/s to 20 m/s in 5 s. Acceleration?
34. If velocity decreases uniformly, acceleration is?
35. Motion of a freely falling body from rest. Displacement in t seconds?
36. A particle moves such that its displacement s = t² + 2t. Its velocity at t = 2 s?
37. A body covers half distance with speed u and remaining with speed 2u. Average speed?
38. Instantaneous speed is?
39. If s = 3t² + 2t, acceleration at t = 2 s?
40. A particle moves such that v = 5t. Displacement in 2 s?
41. A body moves in a straight line with constant speed. Its acceleration?
42. Uniformly accelerated motion graph of velocity vs time is?
43. A particle moves such that x = 4t² + 3t. Velocity at t = 1 s?
44. A particle starts with 5 m/s and accelerates at 2 m/s². Velocity after 3 s?
45. Time taken to stop a car moving at 20 m/s with deceleration 2 m/s²?
46. A particle moves with velocity v = 3t + 2. Acceleration?
47. If distance-time graph is straight line, speed is?
48. A car moves 60 km in 1 h and 120 km in 2 h. Average speed?
49. Acceleration of a body in uniform motion?
50. A body moves with velocity v = u + at. Displacement in t seconds?
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Chapter 3: Laws of Motion
1. Newton’s First Law is also known as?
2. A body remains at rest unless acted upon by?
3. Newton’s Second Law is given by?
4. Unit of force is?
5. A body of mass 5 kg accelerates at 2 m/s². Force applied?
6. Newton’s Third Law states?
7. Momentum is defined as?
8. Unit of momentum is?
9. A body of mass 10 kg moves with velocity 5 m/s. Momentum?
10. Impulse is equal to?
11. Impulse has the same unit as?
12. A force of 20 N acts for 2 s. Impulse?
13. The law of conservation of momentum applies when?
14. A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 3 m/s. Another body of mass 3 kg moves with velocity 2 m/s in opposite direction. Total momentum?
15. Friction is a?
16. Coefficient of friction has?
17. Static friction is?
18. Frictional force depends on?
19. A block of mass 4 kg is on a surface with μ = 0.2. Normal force is 40 N. Frictional force?
20. The force that causes centripetal acceleration is?
21. Centripetal force formula is?
22. A car of mass 1000 kg moves at 20 m/s in a circle of radius 50 m. Centripetal force?
23. Inertia depends on?
24. A body of mass 2 kg is pushed with a force of 10 N. Acceleration?
25. A rocket works on the principle of?
26. A block is at rest on an inclined plane. The force balancing gravity is?
27. A body of mass 5 kg is pulled with a force of 20 N on a frictionless surface. Acceleration?
28. The force of friction is proportional to?
29. A body moves in a circle. The force providing centripetal acceleration is?
30. A body of mass 1 kg is accelerated at 10 m/s². Force applied?
31. The rate of change of momentum is equal to?
32. A ball of mass 0.5 kg hits a wall with velocity 10 m/s and rebounds with the same speed. Change in momentum?
33. A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 4 m/s. It stops in 2 s. Force applied?
34. The dimensional formula of force is?
35. The dimensional formula of momentum is?
36. A body of mass 3 kg is at rest. A force of 12 N is applied for 3 s. Final velocity?
37. A body slides on a surface with μ = 0.3 and normal force 50 N. Frictional force?
38. Centripetal force is provided by?
39. A particle moves in a circle of radius 2 m with speed 4 m/s. Centripetal acceleration?
40. A body of mass 1 kg moves in a circle of radius 5 m with speed 10 m/s. Centripetal force?
41. The force of gravity is an example of?
42. A body of mass 10 kg is at rest. A force of 50 N is applied. Acceleration?
43. A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 5 m/s. It stops in 5 s. Force applied?
44. The normal force is always?
45. A body of mass 5 kg is pushed with 25 N on a surface with μ = 0.2. Normal force is 50 N. Net acceleration?
46. A car takes a turn on a road with radius 100 m at 20 m/s. Minimum coefficient of friction to avoid skidding?
47. A body is in equilibrium when?
48. A body of mass 2 kg is pulled with 10 N on a rough surface (μ = 0.1, N = 20 N). Acceleration?
49. The force that causes a body to move in a circle is?
50. A body of mass 0.5 kg is accelerated by a force of 5 N. Acceleration?
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Chapter 4: Work, Energy, and Power
1. Work is defined as?
2. The SI unit of work is?
3. Work done by a force is zero when?
4. A force of 10 N moves a body 5 m in the direction of the force. Work done?
5. Kinetic energy is given by?
6. A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 5 m/s. Kinetic energy?
7. Potential energy of a body at height h is?
8. A body of mass 10 kg is raised to a height of 2 m (g = 10 m/s²). Potential energy?
9. The law of conservation of energy states that?
10. Power is defined as?
11. The SI unit of power is?
12. Work of 100 J is done in 5 s. Power?
13. A body falls freely from a height h. Its velocity at the ground is?
14. A body of mass 1 kg falls from 10 m (g = 10 m/s²). Velocity at ground?
15. Work done by a conservative force depends on?
16. Example of a conservative force is?
17. Work done by a non-conservative force depends on?
18. A body of mass 2 kg is lifted 5 m (g = 10 m/s²). Work done by gravity?
19. Power can also be expressed as?
20. A force of 20 N moves a body with constant velocity 5 m/s. Power?
21. The dimensional formula of work is?
22. The dimensional formula of power is?
23. A body of mass 5 kg is dropped from 20 m (g = 10 m/s²). Kinetic energy at ground?
24. In an elastic collision, what is conserved?
25. In an inelastic collision, what is conserved?
26. A spring is compressed. The energy stored is?
27. A spring with k = 200 N/m is compressed by 0.1 m. Potential energy?
28. Work done by friction is?
29. A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 10 m/s. It stops. Work done?
30. A body of mass 1 kg is lifted 10 m (g = 10 m/s²). Work done by applied force?
31. A body of mass 5 kg moves at 4 m/s. It collides elastically with a stationary body of 3 kg. Velocity of first body after collision?
32. Coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision is?
33. Coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision is?
34. A body of mass 2 kg falls from 5 m (g = 10 m/s²). Work done by gravity?
35. A body moves up an inclined plane. Work done by gravity is?
36. A body of mass 10 kg moves at 5 m/s. Kinetic energy?
37. A force of 50 N moves a body 10 m at an angle of 60° to the direction of force. Work done?
38. A body of mass 4 kg is raised to 5 m (g = 10 m/s²). Potential energy?
39. A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 10 m/s. It stops in 2 s. Power?
40. Work-energy theorem states that?
41. A body of mass 3 kg moves with velocity 6 m/s. It collides inelastically with a stationary body of 2 kg and moves together. Final velocity?
42. A body is dropped from a height of 20 m (g = 10 m/s²). Kinetic energy halfway down?
43. A body of mass 5 kg is pushed 10 m with 20 N force. Work done?
44. A spring with k = 100 N/m is stretched by 0.2 m. Work done?
45. A body of mass 2 kg moves with velocity 5 m/s. It stops in 2 m. Work done?
46. A body of mass 10 kg is lifted 5 m in 2 s (g = 10 m/s²). Power?
47. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown vertically up with velocity 20 m/s (g = 10 m/s²). Maximum height?
48. A body of mass 2 kg is dropped from 10 m (g = 10 m/s²). Potential energy at start?
49. A body moves with constant velocity. Work done by the net force is?
50. A body of mass 5 kg is pushed with 50 N over 10 m. Kinetic energy change?
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Chapter 5: Motion in a Plane
1. A vector quantity has?
2. The angle between two equal vectors for their resultant to be equal to either vector is?
3. The resultant of two vectors of magnitudes 3 and 4 units, perpendicular to each other, is?
4. The dot product of two perpendicular vectors is?
5. The cross product of two parallel vectors is?
6. A projectile is launched at an angle θ. Its maximum height is given by?
7. The range of a projectile is maximum when the angle of projection is?
8. A projectile is launched with speed 20 m/s at 30° (g = 10 m/s²). Maximum height?
9. The time of flight of a projectile is given by?
10. A projectile is launched with speed 10 m/s at 45° (g = 10 m/s²). Range?
11. The velocity of a projectile at its highest point is?
12. In uniform circular motion, the acceleration is?
13. A body moves in a circle of radius 2 m with speed 4 m/s. Centripetal acceleration?
14. The direction of centripetal acceleration is?
15. The angular velocity in uniform circular motion is?
16. A body moves in a circle of radius 5 m with angular velocity 2 rad/s. Linear speed?
17. Relative velocity is defined as?
18. A boat moves at 5 m/s across a river flowing at 3 m/s. Relative velocity of boat w.r.t. river?
19. The time taken by a projectile to reach maximum height is?
20. A projectile is launched with speed 20 m/s at 60° (g = 10 m/s²). Time of flight?
21. The unit vector of a vector A is?
22. The resultant of two vectors of equal magnitude at angle 180° is?
23. A vector of magnitude 10 units makes 60° with x-axis. Its x-component is?
24. A vector of magnitude 10 units makes 60° with x-axis. Its y-component is?
25. The scalar product of vectors A and B is?
26. The vector product of vectors A and B is?
27. A body moves in a circle with constant speed. Its acceleration is?
28. A projectile is launched with speed 10 m/s at 60° (g = 10 m/s²). Maximum height?
29. The horizontal range of a projectile is given by?
30. A body moves with velocity 3i + 4j m/s. Magnitude of velocity?
31. A body moves in a circle of radius 10 m with speed 5 m/s. Centripetal force (mass = 2 kg)?
32. The path of a projectile is?
33. A car moves at 20 m/s north, and another at 15 m/s east. Relative velocity of first w.r.t. second?
34. The dimensional formula of angular velocity is?
35. A projectile is launched with speed 15 m/s at 45° (g = 10 m/s²). Time to reach max height?
36. The angle between velocity and acceleration at the highest point of a projectile is?
37. A vector of magnitude 5 units is along 3i + 4j. The vector is?
38. The minimum number of vectors of unequal magnitude required to produce zero resultant is?
39. A body moves with velocity 4i + 3j m/s. Its speed is?
40. The resultant of two vectors 3i + 4j and 4i + 3j is?
41. A projectile is launched with speed 20 m/s at 30° (g = 10 m/s²). Range?
42. The scalar product of i + j and i - j is?
43. The cross product of i and j is?
44. A body moves in a circle with period 2 s and radius 4 m. Linear speed?
45. A train moves at 20 m/s east, and a man runs at 5 m/s west on it. Relative velocity w.r.t. ground?
46. The horizontal component of velocity of a projectile is?
47. The vertical component of velocity at the highest point of a projectile is?
48. A body moves in a circle of radius 3 m with speed 6 m/s. Angular velocity?
49. A vector of magnitude 6 units is along 2i + 2j + 4k. Its magnitude along k is?
50. A projectile is launched with speed 30 m/s at 60° (g = 10 m/s²). Horizontal range?
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Chapter 6: System of Particles and Rotational Motion
1. The center of mass of a system of particles depends on?
2. The center of mass of two particles of equal mass lies?
3. The center of mass of a system moves with constant velocity if?
4. Moment of inertia depends on?
5. The SI unit of moment of inertia is?
6. Moment of inertia of a thin ring about its axis is?
7. Moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is?
8. A ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m rotates about its axis. Moment of inertia?
9. Torque is defined as?
10. The SI unit of torque is?
11. A force of 10 N acts at 0.2 m from the axis of rotation. Torque?
12. Angular momentum is defined as?
13. The SI unit of angular momentum is?
14. A disc of moment of inertia 2 kg·m² rotates at 4 rad/s. Angular momentum?
15. The law of conservation of angular momentum applies when?
16. The relation between torque and angular acceleration is?
17. A disc of moment of inertia 5 kg·m² has torque 10 N·m. Angular acceleration?
18. The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis through its end is?
19. Rotational kinetic energy is given by?
20. A disc of moment of inertia 2 kg·m² rotates at 3 rad/s. Rotational kinetic energy?
21. The radius of gyration is defined as?
22. The moment of inertia of a disc about its diameter is?
23. A wheel rotates with angular velocity 5 rad/s. If moment of inertia is 4 kg·m², angular momentum?
24. The angular acceleration of a body is caused by?
25. Two particles of masses 2 kg and 3 kg are at (1, 0) m and (0, 1) m. Position of center of mass?
26. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its axis is?
27. A torque of 5 N·m acts on a wheel of moment of inertia 2 kg·m². Angular acceleration?
28. The angular velocity of a body changes from 2 rad/s to 4 rad/s in 2 s. Angular acceleration?
29. The perpendicular axis theorem applies to?
30. The parallel axis theorem is used to find moment of inertia about?
31. A disc rolls without slipping. The velocity of its center of mass is?
32. A solid sphere rolls down an incline. Its acceleration depends on?
33. The moment of inertia of a hollow sphere about its diameter is?
34. A wheel of radius 0.5 m rotates at 10 rad/s. Linear speed of a point on its rim?
35. The angular momentum of a system is conserved if?
36. A thin rod of length 2 m and mass 1 kg rotates about its end. Moment of inertia?
37. A disc of moment of inertia 3 kg·m² rotates at 2 rad/s. Rotational kinetic energy?
38. The torque required to stop a rotating wheel is?
39. A body rotates with angular velocity 4 rad/s and moment of inertia 2 kg·m². Angular momentum?
40. The moment of inertia of a rectangular lamina about an axis perpendicular to its plane through center is?
41. A solid cylinder rolls down an incline of angle 30°. Acceleration (g = 10 m/s²)?
42. The angular velocity of Earth’s rotation about its axis is approximately?
43. A body rotates with constant angular velocity. The torque on it is?
44. A particle of mass 1 kg is at (2, 3) m, and another of 2 kg at (4, 1) m. Center of mass?
45. The moment of inertia of a thin rod about its center is?
46. A wheel of moment of inertia 4 kg·m² slows from 5 rad/s to 3 rad/s in 2 s. Torque?
47. The rotational analogue of force is?
48. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 0.1 m rolls with speed 2 m/s. Total kinetic energy?
49. The moment of inertia of a body is minimum about?
50. A disc of radius 0.2 m and mass 1 kg rotates at 5 rad/s. Linear speed of a point on its rim?
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Chapter 7: Gravitation
1. Newton’s law of gravitation applies to?
2. The gravitational force between two masses is proportional to?
3. The gravitational force is inversely proportional to?
4. The SI unit of gravitational constant G is?
5. Two masses of 2 kg each are 1 m apart. If G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N·m²/kg², gravitational force?
6. Acceleration due to gravity on Earth’s surface is?
7. Value of g on Earth’s surface (approx.) is?
8. At what height above Earth’s surface does g become g/4? (R = Earth’s radius)
9. Gravitational potential energy is given by?
10. The SI unit of gravitational potential is?
11. Escape velocity from Earth’s surface is given by?
12. Escape velocity from Earth (approx.) is?
13. Orbital velocity of a satellite close to Earth’s surface is?
14. Orbital velocity of a satellite near Earth (approx.) is?
15. The time period of a satellite in circular orbit is given by?
16. Kepler’s first law states that planets move in?
17. Kepler’s second law is related to?
18. Kepler’s third law relates time period to?
19. Gravitational force is a?
20. Gravitational potential at infinity is?
21. The value of g at Earth’s center is?
22. Two masses of 1 kg each are 2 m apart. Gravitational force (G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N·m²/kg²)?
23. The gravitational field intensity is given by?
24. The dimensional formula of gravitational constant G is?
25. The escape velocity from a planet with twice Earth’s radius and same mass is?
26. Gravitational potential energy of a mass m at distance r from Earth is?
27. A satellite orbits at height R above Earth’s surface. Value of g at that height?
28. The total energy of a satellite in circular orbit is?
29. A body is taken to a height equal to Earth’s radius. Gravitational potential energy change?
30. The orbital velocity of a satellite at height h is?
31. The time period of a geostationary satellite is?
32. A geostationary satellite orbits at height (approx.)?
33. The gravitational force between two masses is always?
34. The value of g on the Moon is approximately?
35. The escape velocity from a planet with half Earth’s mass and same radius is?
36. Gravitational field intensity inside a uniform spherical shell is?
37. Gravitational potential inside a uniform spherical shell is?
38. The total energy of a body escaping Earth’s gravity becomes?
39. A satellite’s kinetic energy in circular orbit is?
40. The gravitational field intensity at a point is the?
41. The gravitational potential at a point is the?
42. The escape velocity from a planet with twice Earth’s mass and same radius is?
43. The gravitational force inside a uniform solid sphere at distance r from center is proportional to?
44. The time period of a satellite at height 2R above Earth’s surface is?
45. The binding energy of a satellite in circular orbit is?
46. The gravitational force between Earth and Moon is responsible for?
47. The gravitational potential energy of a body at Earth’s surface is?
48. A satellite in elliptical orbit has maximum speed at?
49. The orbital velocity of a satellite at height equal to Earth’s radius is?
50. The gravitational field intensity at Earth’s surface (M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m, G = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N·m²/kg²) is?
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Chapter 8: Mechanical Properties of Solids
1. The property of a material to regain its original shape after deformation is called?
2. Stress is defined as?
3. The SI unit of stress is?
4. Strain is defined as?
5. Strain is a?
6. Hooke’s law is applicable within?
7. The ratio of stress to strain is called?
8. Young’s modulus is associated with?
9. The SI unit of Young’s modulus is?
10. The modulus of rigidity is associated with?
11. Bulk modulus is defined for?
12. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of?
13. Poisson’s ratio is?
14. The breaking stress of a material depends on?
15. Elastic limit is the point beyond which?
16. The stress-strain graph for a brittle material is?
17. A material with high Young’s modulus is?
18. The dimensional formula of Young’s modulus is?
19. The work done per unit volume in elastic deformation is?
20. A wire of length 2 m and cross-sectional area 10⁻⁶ m² is stretched by a force of 100 N. If Young’s modulus is 2 × 10¹¹ N/m², the elongation is?
21. The yield point in a stress-strain curve indicates?
22. The bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body is?
23. The shear modulus is also known as?
24. A material that breaks suddenly without plastic deformation is?
25. A material that can be drawn into wires is?
26. The stress required to break a material is called?
27. The Poisson’s ratio for most materials lies between?
28. The elastic potential energy stored in a wire is?
29. A wire of Young’s modulus 2 × 10¹¹ N/m² and Poisson’s ratio 0.25 is stretched. The ratio of longitudinal to lateral strain is?
30. The compressibility of a material is?
31. The stress-strain curve for a ductile material shows?
32. The Young’s modulus of steel is approximately?
33. The Young’s modulus of rubber is approximately?
34. A material with no plastic deformation is?
35. The elastic limit of a material is?
36. The bulk modulus is highest for?
37. The shear strain is defined as?
38. The Young’s modulus of a material is related to?
39. The elastic behavior of a material is governed by?
40. The breaking stress of a wire depends on?
41. A wire stretched by 0.1% of its length has a strain of?
42. The Young’s modulus of a wire is doubled if?
43. The elastic energy stored in a deformed material is proportional to?
44. A material with high Poisson’s ratio is?
45. The stress at which a material begins to deform plastically is?
46. The modulus of elasticity is highest for?
47. The energy stored in a stretched wire is?
48. The bulk modulus of a gas is?
49. The stress-strain curve for a perfectly elastic material is?
50. A wire of cross-sectional area 2 × 10⁻⁶ m² is stretched by 0.01 m under a load of 1000 N. If length is 2 m, Young’s modulus is?
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Chapter 9: Mechanical Properties of Fluids
1. The pressure in a fluid is defined as?
2. The SI unit of pressure is?
3. Pascal’s law states that pressure in a fluid is?
4. The pressure at a depth h in a fluid of density ρ is?
5. The density of a fluid is defined as?
6. The SI unit of density is?
7. Buoyant force is due to?
8. Archimedes’ principle states that the buoyant force is equal to?
9. An object floats if its density is?
10. The relative density of a substance is?
11. The pressure exerted by the atmosphere at sea level is approximately?
12. The unit of atmospheric pressure, 1 atm, is equal to?
13. The gauge pressure is?
14. The pressure at a depth of 10 m in water (density = 1000 kg/m³, g = 9.8 m/s²) is?
15. Viscosity is a measure of?
16. The SI unit of viscosity is?
17. Bernoulli’s principle applies to?
18. Bernoulli’s equation relates?
19. The continuity equation is based on?
20. The continuity equation states that?
21. Surface tension is defined as?
22. The SI unit of surface tension is?
23. The rise of liquid in a capillary tube is due to?
24. The formula for capillary rise in a tube of radius r is?
25. The angle of contact for water and glass is?
26. The angle of contact for mercury and glass is?
27. A fluid is said to be ideal if it is?
28. The terminal velocity of a sphere falling in a viscous fluid depends on?
29. Stokes’ law is applicable for?
30. The viscous force on a sphere is given by?
31. The terminal velocity of a sphere is proportional to?
32. The Reynolds number determines?
33. A high Reynolds number indicates?
34. A low Reynolds number indicates?
35. The pressure in a horizontal pipe decreases if?
36. The buoyant force on an object fully submerged in a fluid is?
37. The pressure exerted by a column of mercury 76 cm high is equivalent to?
38. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is?
39. The excess pressure inside a liquid drop is?
40. The velocity of efflux from a hole at depth h is?
41. Torricelli’s theorem is related to?
42. The dimensional formula of viscosity is?
43. The dimensional formula of surface tension is?
44. A fluid with high viscosity flows?
45. The buoyant force on a floating object is equal to?
46. The pressure inside a liquid drop of radius 0.1 mm and surface tension 0.07 N/m is?
47. The height of water rise in a capillary tube of radius 0.1 mm (T = 0.07 N/m, ρ = 1000 kg/m³, g = 9.8 m/s², θ = 0°) is?
48. The streamline flow is characterized by?
49. The critical velocity for transition from laminar to turbulent flow depends on?
50. The total energy per unit volume in Bernoulli’s equation is?
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Chapter 10: Thermal Properties of Matter
1. Temperature is a measure of?
2. The SI unit of temperature is?
3. The relation between Celsius (C) and Kelvin (K) scales is?
4. The specific heat capacity of a substance is?
5. The SI unit of specific heat capacity is?
6. The latent heat of fusion is the heat required to?
7. The SI unit of latent heat is?
8. The latent heat of vaporization is associated with?
9. The thermal expansion of a solid is due to?
10. The coefficient of linear expansion has the unit?
11. The coefficient of volume expansion is?
12. The formula for linear expansion is?
13. The heat required to raise the temperature of a substance is given by?
14. The heat required for phase change is given by?
15. The specific heat capacity of water is approximately?
16. The latent heat of fusion of ice is approximately?
17. The latent heat of vaporization of water at 100°C is approximately?
18. The triple point of water occurs at?
19. The critical temperature of a substance is?
20. The coefficient of thermal conductivity has the SI unit?
21. The thermal conductivity of a material measures?
22. Good conductors of heat have?
23. The rate of heat flow through a conductor is given by?
24. The thermal conductivity of copper is approximately?
25. Poor conductors of heat are called?
26. The process of heat transfer without a medium is?
27. Convection occurs in?
28. The Stefan-Boltzmann law relates to?
29. The power radiated by a black body is proportional to?
30. The Stefan-Boltzmann constant has the value?
31. Wien’s displacement law relates?
32. Wien’s constant has the value?
33. The process of heat transfer by molecular collision is?
34. The specific heat capacity of a gas at constant volume is?
35. The ratio of specific heats (γ) for a monatomic gas is?
36. The specific heat capacity of a gas at constant pressure is denoted by?
37. The heat required to melt 1 kg of ice at 0°C is?
38. The heat required to convert 1 kg of water at 100°C to steam at 100°C is?
39. The coefficient of area expansion is?
40. The thermal expansion of liquids is generally?
41. The anomalous expansion of water occurs between?
42. The density of water is maximum at?
43. The heat transfer in a vacuum occurs by?
44. The emissivity of a perfect black body is?
45. The absorptivity of a perfect black body is?
46. The heat required to raise 2 kg of water from 20°C to 30°C (c = 4186 J/(kg·K)) is?
47. The heat required to melt 0.5 kg of ice at 0°C (L = 334 kJ/kg) is?
48. The heat required to convert 1 kg of water at 100°C to steam at 100°C (L = 2260 kJ/kg) is?
49. The thermal conductivity of air is approximately?
50. The dimensional formula of thermal conductivity is?
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Chapter 11: Thermodynamics
1. Thermodynamics is the study of?
2. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of?
3. The first law of thermodynamics can be expressed as?
4. In thermodynamics, internal energy (U) is a?
5. Work done (W) in a thermodynamic process is?
6. The second law of thermodynamics implies?
7. The SI unit of internal energy is?
8. An isothermal process occurs at?
9. In an isothermal process for an ideal gas, the change in internal energy is?
10. For an ideal gas in an isothermal process, the relation between pressure and volume is?
11. An adiabatic process occurs with?
12. For an ideal gas in an adiabatic process, the relation is?
13. The specific heat ratio (γ) for a diatomic gas is?
14. In an isobaric process, the pressure is?
15. In an isochoric process, the volume is?
16. Work done in an isochoric process is?
17. The work done in an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is given by?
18. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on?
19. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is given by?
20. The second law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of?
21. Entropy is a measure of?
22. The SI unit of entropy is?
23. In a reversible process, the change in entropy of the universe is?
24. In an irreversible process, the entropy of the universe?
25. The work done in an adiabatic process is given by?
26. The specific heat at constant volume (Cᵥ) for an ideal gas is?
27. The specific heat at constant pressure (Cₚ) for an ideal gas is?
28. The molar specific heat at constant volume for a monatomic gas is?
29. The molar specific heat at constant volume for a diatomic gas is?
30. The work done in an isobaric process is given by?
31. The Carnot cycle consists of?
32. The efficiency of a heat engine is always?
33. The coefficient of performance (COP) of a refrigerator is?
34. The COP of a Carnot refrigerator is given by?
35. The change in entropy for a reversible isothermal process is?
36. The third law of thermodynamics states that entropy of a system at absolute zero is?
37. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on?
38. The work done in a cyclic process is equal to?
39. The change in internal energy in a cyclic process is?
40. The heat added in an isobaric process is given by?
41. The enthalpy (H) of a system is defined as?
42. The SI unit of enthalpy is?
43. In an isobaric process, the change in enthalpy is equal to?
44. The free expansion of an ideal gas results in?
45. The Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as?
46. A process is spontaneous if the change in Gibbs free energy is?
47. The work done in an adiabatic expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas from V₁ to V₂ is?
48. The heat added in an isochoric process is equal to?
49. The relation between Cₚ and Cᵥ for an ideal gas is?
50. The maximum efficiency of a heat engine operating between 400 K and 300 K is?
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Chapter 12: Kinetic Theory of Gases
1. The kinetic theory of gases assumes that gas molecules?
2. The pressure of an ideal gas is due to?
3. The ideal gas equation is?
4. The universal gas constant (R) has the value?
5. The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is proportional to?
6. The average kinetic energy per molecule of an ideal gas is?
7. The Boltzmann constant (k) is related to the gas constant (R) by?
8. The value of the Boltzmann constant is?
9. The root mean square (RMS) speed of gas molecules is given by?
10. The RMS speed of gas molecules depends on?
11. The average speed of gas molecules is?
12. The most probable speed of gas molecules is?
13. The relation between RMS speed (vᵣₘₛ), average speed (vₐᵥ), and most probable speed (vₘₚ) is?
14. The pressure of an ideal gas is proportional to?
15. The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on?
16. The degree of freedom for a monatomic gas is?
17. The degree of freedom for a diatomic gas at room temperature is?
18. The molar specific heat at constant volume (Cᵥ) for a monatomic gas is?
19. The molar specific heat at constant volume (Cᵥ) for a diatomic gas is?
20. The molar specific heat at constant pressure (Cₚ) for a monatomic gas is?
21. The ratio of specific heats (γ) for a monatomic gas is?
22. The ratio of specific heats (γ) for a diatomic gas is?
23. The internal energy of 1 mole of a monatomic gas is?
24. The internal energy of 1 mole of a diatomic gas at room temperature is?
25. The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution describes?
26. The mean free path of a gas molecule is?
27. The mean free path is inversely proportional to?
28. The mean free path increases with?
29. The pressure of an ideal gas is related to the RMS speed by?
30. The kinetic energy of 1 mole of an ideal gas is?
31. The RMS speed of oxygen molecules (M = 32 g/mol) at 300 K is approximately?
32. The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule at 0°C is?
33. The kinetic theory assumes that intermolecular forces are?
34. The volume occupied by gas molecules is assumed to be?
35. The average time between collisions of gas molecules is called?
36. The collision frequency of gas molecules is?
37. The internal energy of an ideal gas is?
38. The RMS speed of a gas molecule increases with?
39. The number of degrees of freedom for a polyatomic gas is?
40. The molar specific heat at constant volume for a polyatomic gas is?
41. The pressure of 1 mole of an ideal gas at 300 K in a volume of 0.0224 m³ is?
42. The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule is proportional to?
43. The RMS speed of a gas molecule is inversely proportional to?
44. The kinetic theory of gases explains?
45. The temperature at which the RMS speed of a gas doubles is?
46. The mean free path of a gas molecule is proportional to?
47. The average translational kinetic energy of a molecule is independent of?
48. The number of molecules per unit volume is proportional to?
49. The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of a diatomic gas at 300 K is?
50. The kinetic theory of gases is valid for?
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Quiz: Electric Charges and Fields
1. The SI unit of electric charge is:
2. The force between two point charges is described by:
3. The electric field due to a point charge varies as:
4. The dimensional formula of electric field is:
5. Gauss’s law relates electric flux to:
6. The electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is:
7. The torque on an electric dipole in a uniform electric field is:
8. Electric field lines of a positive point charge:
9. The electric flux through a closed surface depends on:
10. The force between two charges in a vacuum is proportional to:
11. The constant k in Coulomb’s law is:
12. The electric field due to an infinite plane sheet is:
13. The electric dipole moment is a:
14. The potential energy of an electric dipole in a uniform electric field is:
15. The electric field due to a charged conducting sphere outside its surface is:
16. The quantization of charge implies:
17. The electric field at the center of a charged ring is:
18. The electric field lines:
19. The electric field due to an infinite line of charge varies as:
20. The SI unit of electric flux is:
21. The force on a charge q in an electric field E is:
22. The electric field due to a dipole on its axial line varies as:
23. The electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is:
24. The permittivity of free space ε₀ has dimensions:
25. The electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite cylinder outside is:
26. The direction of electric field lines for a negative point charge is:
27. The electric field at the equatorial point of a dipole is:
28. The net electric flux through a cube with a charge q at its center is:
29. The electric field due to a uniformly charged sphere at its surface is:
30. The charge on an electron is:
31. The force between two charges increases by a factor of 4 if the distance is:
32. The electric field due to a dipole at a large distance on the axial line is proportional to:
33. The electric flux through a surface is maximum when the angle between E and dA is:
34. The electric field inside a hollow conductor is:
35. The SI unit of dipole moment is:
36. The electric field due to a uniformly charged thin spherical shell at an external point is:
37. The electric field lines are denser where the field is:
38. The force between two charges in a medium with permittivity ε is:
39. The electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite plane is independent of:
40. The torque on a dipole is maximum when the angle between p and E is:
41. The electric field due to a charged ring at a point on its axis at distance x is:
42. The electric field inside a uniformly charged solid sphere varies as:
43. The work done to rotate a dipole in a uniform electric field from θ₁ to θ₂ is:
44. The electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite cylinder inside is:
45. The charge per unit length is called:
46. The electric field lines for two unlike charges:
47. The electric field at a point due to multiple charges is found using:
48. The electric field due to a uniformly charged disk at a point on its axis varies as:
49. The electric field due to a dipole at a point far away is proportional to:
50. The electric field inside a charged conductor is zero due to:
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Quiz: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
1. The SI unit of electric potential is:
2. Electric potential is defined as:
3. The potential due to a point charge q at a distance r is:
4. The dimensional formula of electric potential is:
5. The potential energy of two point charges q₁ and q₂ separated by r is:
6. Equipotential surfaces are:
7. The potential due to an electric dipole at a point on its equatorial line is:
8. The capacitance of a capacitor is defined as:
9. The SI unit of capacitance is:
10. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is proportional to:
11. The energy stored in a capacitor is given by:
12. The potential at infinity is taken as:
13. The potential gradient is equal to:
14. The capacitance of a spherical conductor is proportional to:
15. The effect of a dielectric in a capacitor is to:
16. The potential energy of a system of two charges is:
17. The electric potential due to a continuous charge distribution is found using:
18. The potential at the surface of a charged conductor is:
19. The capacitance of two capacitors in series is:
20. The potential at a point due to a uniformly charged sphere is:
21. The potential difference between two points is equal to:
22. The energy density of a parallel plate capacitor is:
23. The potential due to a dipole at a large distance on its axial line is:
24. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric is:
25. The potential at the center of a uniformly charged spherical shell is:
26. The work done in moving a charge between two points on an equipotential surface is:
27. The potential due to a system of charges is found using:
28. The capacitance of two capacitors in parallel is:
29. The potential energy of a charge q in an electric field E is:
30. The electric field is related to potential by:
31. The potential at a point due to a uniformly charged ring at its center is:
32. The energy stored in a capacitor with capacitance C and charge Q is:
33. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases with:
34. The potential due to a dipole at a large distance varies as:
35. The dielectric constant k of a material is:
36. The potential energy of a system of three charges is found using:
37. The potential at a point on the axis of a uniformly charged ring is:
38. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with a vacuum is:
39. The energy stored in a capacitor with charge Q and voltage V is:
40. The effect of increasing the distance between the plates of a capacitor is to:
41. The potential at a point inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is:
42. The potential due to a continuous charge distribution is found by:
43. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric of dielectric constant k is:
44. The potential difference across a capacitor is:
45. The energy density of a parallel plate capacitor is:
46. The potential at a point on the equatorial plane of a dipole at large distance is:
47. The capacitance of a cylindrical capacitor is proportional to:
48. The potential at a point due to a uniformly charged infinite plane is:
49. The effect of a dielectric on the energy stored in a capacitor is to:
50. The potential at a point due to a system of two equal and opposite charges is:
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Quiz: Current Electricity
1. The SI unit of electric current is:
2. Ohm’s law is valid for:
3. The resistance of a conductor depends on:
4. The dimensional formula of resistivity is:
5. The SI unit of conductance is:
6. Kirchhoff’s first law is based on:
7. Kirchhoff’s second law is based on:
8. The power dissipated in a resistor is given by:
9. The resistivity of a conductor depends on:
10. The drift velocity of electrons is proportional to:
11. The relation between current density J and conductivity σ is:
12. The equivalent resistance of two resistors in series is:
13. The equivalent resistance of two resistors in parallel is:
14. The Wheatstone bridge is balanced when:
15. The SI unit of electric power is:
16. The potentiometer is primarily used to measure:
17. The temperature coefficient of resistance is negative for:
18. The electromotive force (emf) of a cell is measured in:
19. The terminal voltage of a cell is given by:
20. The resistance of a wire increases with:
21. The current density is defined as:
22. The unit of drift velocity is:
23. The power in an electric circuit can also be expressed as:
24. The Wheatstone bridge is used to measure:
25. The internal resistance of a cell is measured in:
26. The condition for maximum power transfer in a circuit is:
27. If the length of a wire is doubled, its resistance:
28. The conductance G is related to resistance R by:
29. A voltmeter is always connected in:
30. An ammeter is always connected in:
31. The electrical energy consumed in a circuit is given by:
32. The equivalent emf of two cells in series is:
33. The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with:
34. The unit of temperature coefficient of resistance is:
35. The current in a circuit is measured using:
36. The equivalent emf of two cells in parallel is given by:
37. The resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to:
38. The potentiometer is more accurate than a voltmeter because it:
39. The resistance of a metal increases with temperature according to:
40. The unit of current density is:
41. The equivalent resistance of n identical resistors in parallel is:
42. The electrical energy is measured in:
43. If the area of cross-section of a wire is doubled, its resistance:
44. The internal resistance of a cell affects the:
45. The power dissipated in a resistor can also be expressed as:
46. The relation V = IR represents:
47. The potentiometer is used to compare:
48. The temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for:
49. The resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to:
50. The unit of electrical conductance is:
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Quiz: Moving Charges and Magnetism
1. The force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:
2. The SI unit of magnetic field strength is:
3. The force on a charged particle is maximum when it moves:
4. The dimensional formula of magnetic field (B) is:
5. The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by:
6. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid is:
7. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:
8. The magnetic field due to a current-carrying straight wire at a distance r is:
9. The direction of magnetic field lines around a current-carrying wire is given by:
10. The torque on a current loop in a magnetic field is given by:
11. The magnetic moment of a current loop is:
12. The cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in a magnetic field is:
13. The path of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field is:
14. The force between two parallel current-carrying wires is:
15. The magnetic field at the center of a circular current loop is:
16. The force on a charged particle moving parallel to the magnetic field is:
17. The unit of magnetic permeability (μ₀) is:
18. The Biot-Savart law is used to find:
19. The magnetic field due to a current element is proportional to:
20. The radius of the circular path of a charged particle in a magnetic field is:
21. Ampere’s circuital law relates:
22. The magnetic field at the center of a square loop carrying current I is:
23. The force between two parallel wires with currents in the same direction is:
24. The magnetic field inside a toroid is:
25. The magnetic field outside a long straight solenoid is:
26. The work done by the magnetic force on a moving charged particle is:
27. The magnetic field at the axial point of a circular current loop is:
28. The SI unit of magnetic moment is:
29. The magnetic field due to a long straight wire follows:
30. The force on a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field depends on:
31. The magnetic field at the center of a circular arc of angle φ carrying current I is:
32. The magnetic field inside an ideal solenoid is:
33. The force between two parallel wires with currents in opposite directions is:
34. The magnetic field due to a current-carrying loop at a far point on its axis varies as:
35. The cyclotron is used to:
36. The torque on a current loop is maximum when the angle between B and the loop’s plane is:
37. The magnetic field due to a straight infinite wire is:
38. The magnetic field at a point on the axis of a solenoid is:
39. The magnetic force on a charged particle is always:
40. The magnetic field at the center of a Helmholtz coil is:
41. The magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor follows:
42. The magnetic field inside a current-carrying conductor is:
43. The time period of a charged particle in a cyclotron is independent of:
44. The magnetic field due to a current loop at a far point behaves like a:
45. The force per unit length between two parallel current-carrying wires is:
46. The magnetic field at the center of a circular coil with N turns is:
47. The magnetic field lines of a solenoid resemble those of a:
48. The magnetic force on a current-carrying conductor is maximum when it is:
49. The magnetic field due to a current element is perpendicular to:
50. The magnetic field at a point on the equatorial plane of a current loop is:
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Quiz: Magnetism and Matter
1. The SI unit of magnetic field strength is:
2. The magnetic moment of a magnet is a:
3. The angle of dip is the angle between:
4. The dimensional formula of magnetic flux is:
5. The magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is:
6. The magnetic field inside a long solenoid is:
7. The magnetic field due to a bar magnet at an axial point is:
8. The unit of magnetic permeability is:
9. Ferromagnetic materials have:
10. The earth’s magnetic field is strongest at:
11. The magnetic field lines of a bar magnet:
12. The Curie temperature is associated with:
13. The magnetic moment of an electron is due to its:
14. The magnetic field inside a diamagnetic material is:
15. The magnetic field at the center of a current-carrying circular loop is:
16. The magnetic field due to a straight current-carrying conductor is given by:
17. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is:
18. The torque on a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field is given by:
19. The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is measured using:
20. The magnetic field at the equatorial point of a bar magnet is proportional to:
21. The magnetic field inside a toroid is:
22. The unit of magnetic moment is:
23. The angle of declination is the angle between:
24. The magnetic field at the axial point of a bar magnet is proportional to:
25. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is:
26. The magnetic field due to a current-carrying straight conductor at distance r is proportional to:
27. The magnetic field inside a paramagnetic material is:
28. The magnetic flux through a surface is maximum when:
29. The magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet run from:
30. The unit of magnetic flux is:
31. The magnetic field due to a solenoid is proportional to:
32. The magnetic moment of a current-carrying loop is given by:
33. The vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field is maximum at:
34. The relative permeability of a diamagnetic material is:
35. The magnetic field at the axis of a circular current loop is:
36. The magnetic field inside a ferromagnetic material is:
37. The magnetic field lines of a current-carrying loop resemble those of a:
38. The magnetic field outside a long straight current-carrying conductor is:
39. The magnetic flux is a:
40. The magnetic field at the center of a solenoid is given by:
41. The magnetic field due to a bar magnet at a large distance is proportional to:
42. The magnetic susceptibility of a material depends on:
43. The magnetic field inside a hollow conductor carrying current is:
44. The potential energy of a magnetic dipole in a magnetic field is:
45. The magnetic field at the center of a Helmholtz coil is:
46. The magnetic field lines are closest together at:
47. The magnetic field due to a current element is described by:
48. The magnetic field inside a long straight conductor is:
49. The Gauss’s law for magnetism states that the net magnetic flux through a closed surface is:
50. The magnetic field at a point due to a magnetic dipole depends on:
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Quiz: Electromagnetic Induction
1. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction was discovered by:
2. Faraday’s law relates induced EMF to:
3. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:
4. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of:
5. The induced EMF in a coil is given by:
6. The magnetic flux through a loop is maximum when:
7. The unit of inductance is:
8. The EMF induced in a straight conductor moving in a magnetic field is given by:
9. The self-inductance of a coil depends on:
10. The mutual inductance between two coils is measured in:
11. Eddy currents are produced in:
12. The direction of induced current is determined by:
13. The magnetic flux φ is given by:
14. The EMF induced in a coil is proportional to:
15. The self-inductance of a solenoid is proportional to:
16. The energy stored in an inductor is given by:
17. Eddy currents cause:
18. The mutual inductance M between two coils depends on:
19. The induced current in a loop opposes the change in magnetic flux according to:
20. The EMF induced in a rotating coil in a magnetic field is maximum when:
21. The dimensional formula of magnetic flux is:
22. The self-inductance of a coil is defined as:
23. The EMF in a generator depends on:
24. The mutual inductance M is given by:
25. Eddy currents can be reduced by:
26. The induced EMF in a coil rotating in a magnetic field is:
27. The time constant of an LR circuit is:
28. The induced EMF is zero when:
29. The back EMF in a motor is:
30. The mutual inductance is maximum when the coils are:
31. The unit of EMF is:
32. The induced current in a closed loop is zero if:
33. The self-inductance of a solenoid is given by:
34. The EMF induced in a coil depends on:
35. The energy stored in an inductor depends on:
36. The induced EMF in a generator is:
37. The magnetic flux through a surface is a:
38. The back EMF in a motor opposes:
39. The mutual inductance is zero when:
40. The EMF induced in a coil is maximum when:
41. The time constant of an LR circuit depends on:
42. The induced EMF in a conductor moving perpendicular to a magnetic field is:
43. The self-inductance of a coil is measured in:
44. The induced current flows in a direction that:
45. The magnetic flux through a loop depends on:
46. The EMF in a transformer is induced in:
47. The energy stored in an inductor is proportional to:
48. The induced EMF in a coil is zero when:
49. The mutual inductance between two coils is proportional to:
50. The EMF in a generator is maximum when the coil is:
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Quiz: Nuclei
1. The radius of a nucleus with mass number A is given by:
2. The density of nuclear matter is:
3. The binding energy per nucleon for heavy nuclei is relatively low because of:
4. The mass defect is the difference between the mass of the nucleus and the mass of its constituent:
5. The binding energy of a nucleus is related to its mass defect ($\Delta m$) by the equation:
6. Nuclear forces are:
7. The process of splitting a heavy nucleus into two or more smaller nuclei is known as:
8. The process of combining two or more light nuclei to form a heavy nucleus is known as:
9. Alpha decay involves the emission of a particle with the same structure as a:
10. Beta decay involves the emission of an electron or a positron from the:
11. The half-life of a radioactive substance is:
12. The unit of radioactivity is:
13. The number of undecayed nuclei at time t is given by:
14. The average life ($\tau$) of a radioactive substance is related to its half-life ($T_{1/2}$) by:
15. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for:
16. The most stable nuclei have a mass number in the range of:
17. In a nuclear reactor, the moderator's function is to:
18. Control rods in a nuclear reactor are made of materials that:
19. The Q-value of a nuclear reaction is defined as:
20. In gamma decay, a nucleus:
21. An isobar is an atom with the same:
22. An isotope is an atom with the same:
23. The decay constant ($\lambda$) is the probability of a nucleus decaying per unit time. It is related to half-life ($T_{1/2}$) by:
24. The curve of binding energy per nucleon vs. mass number peaks around:
25. Nuclear fission is commonly initiated by:
26. A nuclear reactor is a device used for:
27. The strong nuclear force is responsible for:
28. The size of an atom is approximately $10^{-10}$ m, while the size of a nucleus is approximately:
29. The total number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called its:
30. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days. The fraction of the original sample left after 30 days is:
31. The binding energy per nucleon is a measure of the:
32. The process of fusion requires extremely high temperature because:
33. An alpha particle consists of:
34. A beta-minus ($\beta^-$) decay occurs when a:
35. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by:
36. The average life of a radioactive sample is:
37. In nuclear reactions, which of the following is conserved?
38. The energy equivalent of 1 amu is approximately:
39. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for stable nuclei, which suggests:
40. The nuclear force is dependent on:
41. The binding energy of a nucleus is:
42. The fission of a Uranium-235 nucleus typically releases:
43. The decay of a radioactive sample is:
44. In a radioactive series, a nucleus first undergoes $\alpha$-decay and then $\beta$-decay. The final nucleus relative to the original nucleus is:
45. The half-life of a radioactive material is 4 years. The fraction remaining after 12 years is:
46. The source of energy in the sun is:
47. A chain reaction is a self-sustaining series of nuclear fissions that:
48. The range of the nuclear force is:
49. The relationship between the number of undecayed nuclei (N) and time (t) is:
50. A nucleus with a high binding energy per nucleon is more:
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Quiz: Atoms
1. In Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment, most of the alpha particles passed straight through the gold foil. This indicates that:
2. Rutherford's model of the atom failed to explain:
3. According to Bohr's first postulate, an electron revolves around the nucleus in a fixed orbit without radiating energy. This is known as:
4. Bohr's second postulate states that the angular momentum of an electron in a stationary orbit is:
5. The energy of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit is proportional to:
6. The radius of the nth Bohr orbit for a hydrogen atom is proportional to:
7. The spectral series of hydrogen that lies in the visible region is the:
8. The transition of an electron from an outer orbit to the first orbit ($n_f = 1$) gives rise to the:
9. The shortest wavelength in the Lyman series corresponds to a transition from:
10. The de Broglie hypothesis explains Bohr's second postulate by assuming that an electron orbit is:
11. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is the energy required to remove an electron from:
12. The energy of the ground state of a hydrogen atom is:
13. The velocity of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is:
14. The wavelength of the spectral line for a transition in a hydrogen atom is given by the formula:
15. The maximum number of spectral lines in the Balmer series for an electron jumping from n=4 is:
16. The limitations of Bohr's model include:
17. In Rutherford's experiment, the number of alpha particles scattered at a certain angle is proportional to:
18. The Paschen series of the hydrogen spectrum lies in the:
19. The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbits ($r_1 : r_2 : r_3$) for a hydrogen atom is:
20. According to Bohr, the frequency of emitted radiation is given by:
21. The angular momentum of an electron in the nth orbit is:
22. The kinetic energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is:
23. The total energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is:
24. The total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is:
25. The radius of the first Bohr orbit is approximately:
26. The Brackett series corresponds to the transition of an electron to the orbit with:
27. The Rydberg constant (R) depends on:
28. The shortest wavelength of the Balmer series is:
29. The kinetic energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is:
30. The Pfund series of the hydrogen spectrum lies in the:
31. The frequency of a photon emitted during a transition between energy levels is proportional to the:
32. The size of the nucleus is approximately:
33. The ratio of the total energy to the kinetic energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is:
34. The Balmer series corresponds to electron transitions to the orbit with:
35. The angular momentum of the electron in the first Bohr orbit is:
36. The spectral line with the longest wavelength in the Lyman series is for a transition from:
37. The radius of a nucleus of mass number A is proportional to:
38. The energy of an electron is quantized in an atom because of:
39. The minimum energy required to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground state to its first excited state is:
40. The ratio of the velocity of an electron in the first Bohr orbit to the speed of light is:
41. The shortest wavelength in the Paschen series is for a transition from:
42. The orbital frequency of an electron in a Bohr orbit is proportional to:
43. The atomic spectrum of hydrogen is a:
44. The Bohr model is successful for:
45. The ratio of the total energy to the potential energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is:
46. The impact parameter in alpha-particle scattering is defined as the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the alpha particle from the:
47. The energy required to excite a hydrogen atom from n=1 to n=3 is:
48. A hydrogen atom is in the third excited state. The number of spectral lines it can emit is:
49. The velocity of an electron in the nth Bohr orbit is proportional to:
50. The smallest impact parameter for an alpha particle results in a scattering angle of:
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Quiz: Nuclei
1. The radius of a nucleus with mass number A is given by:
2. The density of nuclear matter is:
3. The binding energy per nucleon for heavy nuclei is relatively low because of:
4. The mass defect is the difference between the mass of the nucleus and the mass of its constituent:
5. The binding energy of a nucleus is related to its mass defect ($\Delta m$) by the equation:
6. Nuclear forces are:
7. The process of splitting a heavy nucleus into two or more smaller nuclei is known as:
8. The process of combining two or more light nuclei to form a heavy nucleus is known as:
9. Alpha decay involves the emission of a particle with the same structure as a:
10. Beta decay involves the emission of an electron or a positron from the:
11. The half-life of a radioactive substance is:
12. The unit of radioactivity is:
13. The number of undecayed nuclei at time t is given by:
14. The average life ($\tau$) of a radioactive substance is related to its half-life ($T_{1/2}$) by:
15. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for:
16. The most stable nuclei have a mass number in the range of:
17. In a nuclear reactor, the moderator's function is to:
18. Control rods in a nuclear reactor are made of materials that:
19. The Q-value of a nuclear reaction is defined as:
20. In gamma decay, a nucleus:
21. An isobar is an atom with the same:
22. An isotope is an atom with the same:
23. The decay constant ($\lambda$) is the probability of a nucleus decaying per unit time. It is related to half-life ($T_{1/2}$) by:
24. The curve of binding energy per nucleon vs. mass number peaks around:
25. Nuclear fission is commonly initiated by:
26. A nuclear reactor is a device used for:
27. The strong nuclear force is responsible for:
28. The size of an atom is approximately $10^{-10}$ m, while the size of a nucleus is approximately:
29. The total number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called its:
30. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days. The fraction of the original sample left after 30 days is:
31. The binding energy per nucleon is a measure of the:
32. The process of fusion requires extremely high temperature because:
33. An alpha particle consists of:
34. A beta-minus ($\beta^-$) decay occurs when a:
35. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by:
36. The average life of a radioactive sample is:
37. In nuclear reactions, which of the following is conserved?
38. The energy equivalent of 1 amu is approximately:
39. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for stable nuclei, which suggests:
40. The nuclear force is dependent on:
41. The binding energy of a nucleus is:
42. The fission of a Uranium-235 nucleus typically releases:
43. The decay of a radioactive sample is:
44. In a radioactive series, a nucleus first undergoes $\alpha$-decay and then $\beta$-decay. The final nucleus relative to the original nucleus is:
45. The half-life of a radioactive material is 4 years. The fraction remaining after 12 years is:
46. The source of energy in the sun is:
47. A chain reaction is a self-sustaining series of nuclear fissions that:
48. The range of the nuclear force is:
49. The relationship between the number of undecayed nuclei (N) and time (t) is:
50. A nucleus with a high binding energy per nucleon is more:
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Quiz: Semiconductor Electronics
1. The forbidden energy gap for a semiconductor is typically in the range of:
2. The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are:
3. The majority charge carriers in an n-type semiconductor are:
4. A p-type semiconductor is obtained by doping a pure semiconductor with:
5. An n-type semiconductor is obtained by doping a pure semiconductor with:
6. In a forward-biased p-n junction, the width of the depletion layer:
7. In a reverse-biased p-n junction, the width of the depletion layer:
8. The process of adding impurities to a pure semiconductor is called:
9. A p-n junction diode conducts current when it is:
10. The output of a half-wave rectifier is:
11. A Zener diode is specially designed to operate in:
12. A Zener diode is used as a:
13. The reverse saturation current in a p-n junction diode is due to:
14. The logic gate that produces a HIGH output only when all of its inputs are LOW is a:
15. The Boolean expression for a NAND gate is:
16. The input resistance of an ideal op-amp is:
17. A transistor is a three-terminal device. The terminals are:
18. The base of a transistor is:
19. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier, the input signal is applied between:
20. In a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency is:
21. A solar cell converts:
22. The output of an OR gate is LOW only when:
23. In a logic circuit, `A + A` is equal to:
24. The truth table for a two-input AND gate shows a HIGH output only when:
25. A Light Emitting Diode (LED) converts:
26. An intrinsic semiconductor at 0 K behaves as:
27. The depletion region in a p-n junction is formed due to:
28. The current gain ($\beta$) of a transistor in common emitter configuration is given by:
29. A NOT gate is also known as a(n):
30. The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature because:
31. A photodiode is used to detect:
32. The truth table for a two-input XOR gate shows a HIGH output when:
33. An op-amp can be used as a:
34. A rectifier converts:
35. The forward bias characteristic of a p-n junction diode is:
36. A junction transistor (BJT) has:
37. In a full-wave rectifier, two diodes are used. Each diode conducts for:
38. The output of a NAND gate is LOW only when:
39. The breakdown voltage of a Zener diode depends on:
40. In a common-base configuration, the input resistance is:
41. The Boolean expression for an OR gate is:
42. The conduction band in a conductor is:
43. The valence band in a semiconductor is:
44. A p-n junction diode is a:
45. A transistor acts as a switch when it is operated in:
46. The emitter in a transistor is:
47. The potential barrier in a p-n junction is due to:
48. The most widely used semiconductor material is: